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Old 10-27-2012, 21:39   #19
Geko45
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Join Date: Nov 2002
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The theists (at least most of them) are equivocating. No one has yet explained how jesus's plain language doesn't mean what it obviously means. He straight up said that every bit of the old law would be in effect until the heavens and the earth came to an end. They haven't.

Specifically, in the case of the prostitute, he said that "he who is without sin may cast the first stone." Ok, I get that part, but after everyone left it was just she and him. As the son of god, he was without sin. Why did he not stone her death? Either he violated the law or he was guilty of sin (i.e. he was just a man).
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Last edited by Geko45; 10-27-2012 at 21:47..
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