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Old 10-28-2012, 06:01   #20
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Originally Posted by Geko45 View Post
The theists (at least most of them) are equivocating. No one has yet explained how jesus's plain language doesn't mean what it obviously means. He straight up said that every bit of the old law would be in effect until the heavens and the earth came to an end. They haven't.

Specifically, in the case of the prostitute, he said that "he who is without sin may cast the first stone." Ok, I get that part, but after everyone left it was just she and him. As the son of god, he was without sin. Why did he not stone her death? Either he violated the law or he was guilty of sin (i.e. he was just a man).
The law reads that both the man and woman had to be present to be accused. In this case only the woman was. This is the reason no one could cast a stone. Also did you notice Jesus told her to sin no more, He admitted it was a sin ( breaking of the law) but the man was not present.
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