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Old 10-29-2012, 09:12   #22
Schabesbert
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Geko45 View Post
The theists (at least most of them) are equivocating. No one has yet explained how jesus's plain language doesn't mean what it obviously means. He straight up said that every bit of the old law would be in effect until the heavens and the earth came to an end. They haven't.
This was apocryphical language, and in that sense, they have, with the destruction of Jersulem and specifically the Temple.


The Temple is considered a microcosm in the truest sense, and its destruction represented the end of an age.

Quote:
Specifically, in the case of the prostitute, he said that "he who is without sin may cast the first stone." Ok, I get that part, but after everyone left it was just she and him. As the son of god, he was without sin. Why did he not stone her death? Either he violated the law or he was guilty of sin (i.e. he was just a man).
There weren't the requisite two or three witnesses against her anymore.
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