Originally Posted by inertia186
The way this thread was going, I thought we were including more than just Rome in "the ancient world."
How does that change anything? You claim slavery in the ancient world was different than slavery in the United States. You claimed that ancient slaves were bondservants, not property. This was incorrect. I provided the example of Roman slaves captured in war.
Even if we take the "ancient world" as more expansive than just Rome, the fact remains that there were slaves that you describe as chattel in Rome, which was part of the ancient world, which renders your initial proposition false.